Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 05:59
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Voyager IPO: Stock Rockets 84% Higher in Trading Debut - Barron's
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Rem dolor autem consequatur assumenda magnam.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.